QRZ! Ham Radio 5

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Continued from file ADV-2.ASC... 4AG-10.3 In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C1 [see graphics addendum]? A. Decoupling B. Output coupling C. Self bias D. Input coupling 4AG-10.4 In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C3 [see graphics addendum]? A. AC feedback B. Input coupling C. Power supply decoupling D. Emitter bypass 4AG-10.5 In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R3 [see graphics addendum]? A. Fixed bias B. Emitter bypass C. Output load resistor D. Self bias 4AG-11.1 What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-11 [see graphics addendum]? A. High-gain amplifier B. Common-collector amplifier C. Linear voltage regulator D. Grounded-emitter amplifier 4AG-11.2 In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of R [see graphics addendum]? A. Emitter load B. Fixed bias C. Collector load D. Voltage regulation 4AG-11.3 In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C1 [see graphics addendum]? A. Input coupling B. Output coupling C. Emitter bypass D. Collector bypass 4AG-11.4 In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C2 [see graphics addendum]? A. Output coupling B. Emitter bypass C. Input coupling D. Hum filtering 4AG-12.1 What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? A. Switching voltage regulator B. Grounded emitter amplifier C. Linear voltage regulator D. Emitter follower 4AG-12.2 What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? A. Line voltage stabilization B. Voltage reference C. Peak clipping D. Hum filtering 4AG-12.3 What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? A. It increases the output ripple B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source C. It increases the current handling capability D. It provides D1 with current 4AG-12.4 What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? A. It resonates at the ripple frequency B. It provides fixed bias for Q1 C. It decouples the output D. It filters the supply voltage 4AG-12.5 What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? A. It bypasses hum around D1 B. It is a brute force filter for the output C. To self resonate at the hum frequency D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1 4AG-12.6 What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? A. It prevents self-oscillation B. It provides brute force filtering of the output C. It provides fixed bias for Q1 D. It clips the peaks of the ripple 4AG-12.7 What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? A. It provides a constant load to the voltage source B. It couples hum to D1 C. It supplies current to D1 D. It bypasses hum around D1 4AG-12.8 What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12 [see graphics addendum]? A. It provides fixed bias for Q1 B. It provides fixed bias for D1 C. It decouples hum from D1 D. It provides a constant minimum load for Q1 4AG-13.1 What value capacitor would be required to tune a 20- microhenry inductor to resonate in the 80-meter wavelength band? A. 150 picofarads B. 200 picofarads C. 100 picofarads D. 100 microfarads 4AG-13.2 What value inductor would be required to tune a 100- picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 40-meter wavelength band? A. 200 microhenrys B. 150 microhenrys C. 5 millihenrys D. 5 microhenrys 4AG-13.3 What value capacitor would be required to tune a 2- microhenry inductor to resonate in the 20-meter wavelength band? A. 64 picofarads B. 6 picofarads C. 12 picofarads D. 88 microfarads 4AG-13.4 What value inductor would be required to tune a 15- picofarad capacitor to resonate in the 15-meter wavelength band? A. 2 microhenrys B. 30 microhenrys C. 4 microhenrys D. 15 microhenrys 4AG-13.5 What value capacitor would be required to tune a 100- microhenry inductor to resonate in the 160-meter wavelength band? A. 78 picofarads B. 25 picofarads C. 405 picofarads D. 40.5 microfarads 4AH-1.1 What is emission ++++A3C++++? A. Facsimile B. RTTY C. ATV D. Slow Scan TV 4AH-1.2 What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? A. A3F B. A3C C. F3F D. F3C 4AH-1.3 What is ++++facsimile++++? A. The transmission of tone-modulated telegraphy B. The transmission of a pattern of printed characters designed to form a picture C. The transmission of printed pictures by electrical means D. The transmission of moving pictures by electrical means 4AH-1.4 What is emission ++++F3C++++? A. Voice transmission B. Slow Scan TV C. RTTY D. Facsimile 4AH-1.5 What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? A. F3C B. A3C C. F3F D. A3F 4AH-1.6 What is emission ++++A3F++++? A. RTTY B. Television C. SSB D. Modulated CW 4AH-1.7 What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? A. F3F B. A3F C. A3C D. F3C 4AH-1.8 What is emission ++++F3F++++? A. Modulated CW B. Facsimile C. RTTY D. Television 4AH-1.9 What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal? A. A3F B. A3C C. F3F D. F3C 4AH-1.10 What type of emission results when a single sideband transmitter is used for slow-scan television? A. J3A B. F3F C. A3F D. J3F 4AH-2.1 How can an FM-phone signal be produced? A. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier B. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier C. By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator D. By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator 4AH-2.2 How can a double-sideband phone signal be produced? A. By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator B. By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit C. By using a phase detector, oscillator and filter in a feedback loop D. By modulating the plate supply voltage to a class C amplifier 4AH-2.3 How can a single-sideband phone signal be produced? A. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by filtering B. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by heterodyning C. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by mixing D. By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and then removing the unwanted sideband by neutralization 4AH-3.1 What is meant by the term ++++deviation ratio++++? A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency 4AH-3.2 In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency? A. Deviation index B. Modulation index C. Deviation ratio D. Modulation ratio 4AH-3.3 What is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? A. 60 B. 0.16 C. 0.6 D. 1.66 4AH-3.4 What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? A. 2.14 B. 0.214 C. 0.47 D. 47 4AH-4.1 What is meant by the term ++++modulation index++++? A. The processor index B. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency 4AH-4.2 In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the ratio between the deviation of the frequency-modulated signal and the modulating frequency? A. FM compressibility B. Quieting index C. Percentage of modulation D. Modulation index 4AH-4.3 How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with the modulated frequency? A. The modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) increases B. The modulation index decreases as the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) increases C. The modulation index varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) D. The modulation index does not depend on the RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency) 4AH-4.4 In an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? A. 3 B. 0.3 C. 3000 D. 1000 4AH-4.5 What is the modulation index of an FM-phone transmitter producing an instantaneous carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency? A. 6000 B. 3 C. 2000 D. 1/3 4AH-5.1 What are ++++electromagnetic waves++++? A. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each other D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other 4AH-5.2 What is a ++++wave front++++? A. A voltage pulse in a conductor B. A current pulse in a conductor C. A voltage pulse across a resistor D. A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave 4AH-5.3 At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space? A. Approximately 300 million meters per second B. Approximately 468 million meters per second C. Approximately 186,300 feet per second D. Approximately 300 million miles per second 4AH-5.4 What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic wave? A. An electric field and a current field B. An electric field and a magnetic field C. An electric field and a voltage field D. A voltage field and a current field 4AH-5.5 Why do electromagnetic waves not penetrate a good conductor to any great extent? A. The electromagnetic field induces currents in the insulator B. The oxide on the conductor surface acts as a shield C. Because of Eddy currents D. The resistivity of the conductor dissipates the field 4AH-6.1 What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves traveling in free space? A. The electric and magnetic fields eventually become aligned B. Propagation in a medium with a high refractive index C. The electromagnetic wave encounters the ionosphere and returns to its source D. Propagation of energy across a vacuum by changing electric and magnetic fields 4AH-6.2 What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as ++++horizontally polarized++++? A. The electric field is parallel to the earth B. The magnetic field is parallel to the earth C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal D. Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical 4AH-6.3 What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as having ++++circular polarization++++? A. The electric field is bent into a circular shape B. The electric field rotates C. The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth D. The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna 4AH-6.4 When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? A. Circular B. Horizontal C. Vertical D. Elliptical 4AH-6.5 When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? A. Circular B. Horizontal C. Elliptical D. Vertical 4AH-6.6 When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic field? A. Horizontal B. Circular C. Elliptical D. Vertical 4AH-6.7 When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave? A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Circular D. Elliptical 4AH-7.1 What is a ++++sine wave++++? A. A constant-voltage, varying-current wave B. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed C. A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function D. A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner 4AH-7.2 How many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis in one complete cycle? A. 180 times B. 4 times C. 2 times D. 360 times 4AH-7.3 How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle? A. 90 degrees B. 270 degrees C. 180 degrees D. 360 degrees 4AH-7.4 What is the ++++period++++ of a wave? A. The time required to complete one cycle B. The number of degrees in one cycle C. The number of zero crossings in one cycle D. The amplitude of the wave 4AH-7.5 What is a ++++square++++ wave? A. A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle B. A wave which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level C. A wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle D. A wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy unequal portions of the cycle time 4AH-7.6 What is a wave called which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level? A. A sine wave B. A cosine wave C. A square wave D. A rectangular wave 4AH-7.7 Which sine waves make up a square wave? A. 0.707 times the fundamental frequency B. The fundamental frequency and all odd and even harmonics C. The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics D. The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics 4AH-7.8 What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? A. Square wave B. Sine wave C. Cosine wave D. Tangent wave 4AH-7.9 What is a ++++sawtooth++++ wave? A. A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time at each level B. A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time (or vice versa) C. A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle D. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed 4AH-7.10 What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? A. A cosine wave B. A square wave C. A sawtooth wave D. A sine wave 4AH-7.11 Which sine waves make up a sawtooth wave? A. The fundamental frequency and all prime harmonics B. The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics C. The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics D. The fundamental frequency and all harmonics 4AH-7.12 What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics? A. A sawtooth wave B. A square wave C. A sine wave D. A cosine wave 4AH-8.1 What is the meaning of the term ++++root mean square++++ value of an AC voltage? A. The value of an AC voltage found by squaring the average value of the peak AC voltage B. The value of a DC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in a given resistor as a peak AC voltage C. The value of an AC voltage that would cause the same heating effect in a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same value D. The value of an AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value 4AH-8.2 What is the term used in reference to a DC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a certain value of AC voltage? A. Cosine voltage B. Power factor C. Root mean square D. Average voltage 4AH-8.3 What would be the most accurate way of determining the rms voltage of a complex waveform? A. By using a grid dip meter B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter C. By using an absorption wavemeter D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor 4AH-8.4 What is the rms voltage at a common household electrical power outlet? A. 117-V AC B. 331-V AC C. 82.7-V AC D. 165.5-V AC 4AH-8.5 What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? A. 234 volts B. 165.5 volts C. 117 volts D. 331 volts 4AH-8.6 What is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? A. 234 volts B. 117 volts C. 331 volts D. 165.5 volts 4AH-8.7 What is the rms voltage of a 165-volt peak pure sine wave? A. 233-V AC B. 330-V AC C. 58.3-V AC D. 117-V AC 4AH-8.8 What is the rms value of a 331-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? A. 117-V AC B. 165-V AC C. 234-V AC D. 300-V AC 4AH-9.1 For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP to average power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? A. Approximately 1.0 to 1 B. Approximately 25 to 1 C. Approximately 2.5 to 1 D. Approximately 100 to 1 4AH-9.2 In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? A. The frequency of the modulating signal B. The degree of carrier suppression C. The speech characteristics D. The amplifier power 4AH-9.3 What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier stage in an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500 watts? A. Approximately 900 watts B. Approximately 1765 watts C. Approximately 2500 watts D. Approximately 3000 watts 4AH-9.4 What is the approximate DC input power to a Class C RF power amplifier stage in a RTTY transmitter when the PEP output power is 1000 watts? A. Approximately 850 watts B. Approximately 1250 watts C. Approximately 1667 watts D. Approximately 2000 watts 4AH-9.5 What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? A. Approximately 250 watts B. Approximately 600 watts C. Approximately 800 watts D. Approximately 1000 watts 4AH-10.1 Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 160-meter wavelength band receiver? A. In the detector B. Man-made noise C. In the receiver front end D. In the atmosphere 4AH-10.2 Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 2-meter wavelength band receiver? A. In the receiver front end B. Man-made noise C. In the atmosphere D. In the ionosphere 4AH-10.3 Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 1.25-meter wavelength band receiver? A. In the audio amplifier B. In the receiver front end C. In the ionosphere D. Man-made noise 4AH-10.4 Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a 0.70-meter wavelength band receiver? A. In the atmosphere B. In the ionosphere C. In the receiver front end D. Man-made noise 4AI-1.1 What is meant by the term ++++antenna gain++++? A. The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna B. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction C. The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the output power of the transmitter D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (including any phasing lines present) 4AI-1.2 What is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the performance of one antenna to that of another real or theoretical antenna? A. Effective radiated power B. Antenna gain C. Conversion gain D. Peak effective power 4AI-1.3 What is meant by the term ++++antenna bandwidth++++? A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well C. The angle between the half-power radiation points D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements 4AI-1.4 How can the approximate beamwidth of a rotatable beam antenna be determined? A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular difference B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and rear of the antenna C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure the angle between the lines D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes from the front and side of the antenna 4AI-2.1 What is a ++++trap antenna++++? A. An antenna for rejecting interfering signals B. A highly sensitive antenna with maximum gain in all directions C. An antenna capable of being used on more than one band because of the presence of parallel LC networks D. An antenna with a large capture area 4AI-2.2 What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? A. It has high directivity in the high-frequency amateur bands B. It has high gain C. It minimizes harmonic radiation D. It may be used for multiband operation 4AI-2.3 What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna? A. It will radiate harmonics B. It can only be used for single band operation C. It is too sharply directional at the lower amateur frequencies D. It must be neutralized 4AI-2.4 What is the principle of a trap antenna? A. Beamwidth may be controlled by non-linear impedances B. The traps form a high impedance to isolate parts of the antenna C. The effective radiated power can be increased if the space around the antenna "sees" a high impedance D. The traps increase the antenna gain 4AI-3.1 What is a parasitic element of an antenna? A. An element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element B. An element dependent on the antenna structure for support C. An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather than from a transmission line D. A transmission line that radiates radio-frequency energy 4AI-3.2 How does a parasitic element generate an electromagnetic field? A. By the RF current received from a connected transmission line B. By interacting with the earth's magnetic field C. By altering the phase of the current on the driven element D. By currents induced into the element from a surrounding electric field 4AI-3.3 How does the length of the reflector element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven element? A. It is about 5% longer B. It is about 5% shorter C. It is twice as long D. It is one-half as long 4AI-3.4 How does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam antenna compare with that of the driven element? A. It is about 5% longer B. It is about 5% shorter C. It is one-half as long D. It is twice as long 4AI-4.1 What is meant by the term ++++radiation resistance++++ for an antenna? A. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line B. The specific impedance of the antenna C. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna D. The resistance in the trap coils to received signals 4AI-4.2 What is the term used for an equivalent resistance which would dissipate the same amount of energy as that radiated from an antenna? A. Space resistance B. Loss resistance C. Transmission line loss D. Radiation resistance 4AI-4.3 Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important? A. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer B. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna C. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front- to-side ratio of the antenna D. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front- to-back ratio of the antenna 4AI-4.4 What are the factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna? A. Transmission line length and height of antenna B. The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects and the length/diameter ratio of the conductors C. It is a constant for all antennas since it is a physical constant D. Sunspot activity and the time of day 4AI-5.1 What is a ++++driven element++++ of an antenna? A. Always the rearmost element B. Always the forwardmost element C. The element fed by the transmission line D. The element connected to the rotator 4AI-5.2 What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in an HF beam antenna? A. 1/4 wavelength B. 1/2 wavelength C. 3/4 wavelength D. 1 wavelength 4AI-5.3 What is the term for an antenna element which is supplied power from a transmitter through a transmission line? A. Driven element B. Director element C. Reflector element D. Parasitic element 4AI-6.1 What is meant by the term ++++antenna efficiency++++? A. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) X 100% B. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / total resistance) X 100% C. Efficiency = (total resistance / radiation resistance) X 100% D. Efficiency = (effective radiated power / transmitter output) X 100% 4AI-6.2 What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system? A. Effective radiated power B. Radiation conversion loss C. Antenna efficiency D. Beamwidth 4AI-6.3 What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system? A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance C. Transmission line resistance plus radiation resistance D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance 4AI-6.4 How can the antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to that of a half-wave antenna? A. By installing a good ground radial system B. By isolating the coax shield from ground C. By shortening the vertical D. By lengthening the vertical 4AI-6.5 Why does a half-wave antenna operate at very high efficiency? A. Because it is non-resonant B. Because the conductor resistance is low compared to the radiation resistance C. Because earth-induced currents add to its radiated power D. Because it has less corona from the element ends than other types of antennas 4AI-7.1 What is a ++++folded dipole++++ antenna? A. A dipole that is one-quarter wavelength long B. A ground plane antenna C. A dipole whose ends are connected by another one-half wavelength piece of wire D. A fictional antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the radiation resistance 4AI-7.2 How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna? A. It is 0.707 times the simple dipole bandwidth B. It is essentially the same C. It is less than 50% that of a simple dipole D. It is greater 4AI-7.3 What is the input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna? A. 300 ohms B. 72 ohms C. 50 ohms D. 450 ohms 4AI-8.1 What is the meaning of the term ++++velocity factor++++ of a transmission line? A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum 4AI-8.2 What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum? A. Velocity factor B. Characteristic impedance C. Surge impedance D. Standing wave ratio 4AI-8.3 What is the velocity factor for a typical coaxial cable? A. 2.70 B. 0.66 C. 0.30 D. 0.10 4AI-8.4 What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? A. The termination impedance B. The line length C. Dielectrics in the line D. The center conductor resistivity 4AI-8.5 Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length? A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable B. RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable C. The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line D. The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line 4AI-9.1 What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz? A. 20 meters B. 3.51 meters C. 2.33 meters D. 0.25 meters 4AI-9.2 What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz? A. 10.5 meters B. 6.88 meters C. 24 meters D. 50 meters 4AI-9.3 What is the physical length of a parallel antenna feedline which is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.82.) A. 15 meters B. 24.3 meters C. 8.7 meters D. 70.8 meters 4AI-9.4 What is the physical length of a twin lead transmission feedline at 3.65 MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.80.) A. Electrical length times 0.8 B. Electrical length divided by 0.8 C. 80 meters D. 160 meters 4AI-10.1 In a half-wave antenna, where are the current nodes? A. At the ends B. At the center C. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end D. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end 4AI-10.2 In a half-wave antenna, where are the voltage nodes? A. At the ends B. At the feed point C. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end D. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end 4AI-10.3 At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? A. Equal voltage and current B. Minimum voltage and maximum current C. Maximum voltage and minimum current D. Minimum voltage and minimum current 4AI-10.4 At the center of a half-wave antenna, what values of voltage and current exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? A. Equal voltage and current B. Maximum voltage and minimum current C. Minimum voltage and minimum current D. Minimum voltage and maximum current 4AI-11.1 Why is the inductance required for a base loaded HF mobile antenna less than that for an inductance placed further up the whip? A. The capacitance to ground is less farther away from the base B. The capacitance to ground is greater farther away from the base C. The current is greater at the top D. The voltage is less at the top 4AI-11.2 What happens to the base feed point of a fixed length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered? A. The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases B. The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases C. The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases D. The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases 4AI-11.3 Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? A. To swamp out harmonics B. To maximize losses C. To minimize losses D. To minimize the Q 4AI-11.4 Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna? A. To improve reception B. To lower the losses C. To lower the Q D. To tune out the capacitive reactance 4AI-12.1 For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance? A. Near the center of the vertical radiator B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator C. As close to the transmitter as possible D. At a voltage node 4AI-12.2 What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? A. It is increased B. It is decreased C. No change occurs D. It becomes flat 4AI-12.3 Why are self-resonant antennas popular in amateur stations? A. They are very broad banded B. They have high gain in all azimuthal directions C. They are the most efficient radiators D. They require no calculations 4AI-12.4 What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna? A. Lower Q B. Greater structural strength C. Higher losses D. Improved radiation efficiency Answers 4AA-1.1 A 4AA-1.2 B 4AA-1.3 D 4AA-1.4 C 4AA-2.1 A 4AA-2.2 D 4AA-2.3 B 4AA-2.4 A 4AA-3.1 D 4AA-3.2 A 4AA-3.3 C 4AA-3.4 D 4AA-3.5 C 4AA-3.6 A 4AA-3.7 D 4AA-3.8 A 4AA-3.9 B 4AA-3.10 A 4AA-4.1 D 4AA-4.2 A 4AA-4.3 B 4AA-4.4 C 4AA-5.1 D 4AA-5.2 A 4AA-5.3 C 4AA-5.4 C 4AA-5.5 D 4AA-6.1 A 4AA-6.2 B 4AA-6.3 B 4AA-7.1 C 4AA-7.2 D 4AA-8.1 A 4AA-8.2 B 4AA-9.1 C 4AA-9.2 C 4AA-9.3 D 4AA-9.4 A 4AA-10.1 B 4AA-10.2 C 4AA-11.1 B 4AA-11.2 A 4AA-12.1 B 4AA-12.2 C 4AA-12.3 D 4AA-13.1 D 4AA-13.2 B 4AA-14.1 C 4AA-14.2 D 4AA-15.1 A 4AA-15.2 B 4AA-15.3 A 4AA-16.1 C 4AA-16.2 D 4AA-17.1 A 4AA-17.2 B 4AA-17.3 C 4AA-18.1 B 4AA-18.2 D 4AA-18.3 B 4AA-19.1 C 4AA-19.2 A 4AA-19.3 A 4AA-19.4 B 4AA-20.1 C 4AA-20.2 D 4AB-1.1 D 4AB-1.2 A 4AB-1.3 B 4AB-1.4 B 4AB-1.5 C 4AB-2.1 D 4AB-2.2 B 4AB-2.3 C 4AB-2.4 C 4AB-2.5 D 4AC-1.1 C 4AC-1.2 D 4AC-1.3 A 4AC-1.4 B 4AC-1.5 A 4AC-2.1 B 4AC-2.2 C 4AC-2.3 D 4AC-2.4 B 4AC-2.5 A 4AC-3.1 D 4AC-3.2 C 4AC-3.3 B 4AC-3.4 D 4AC-3.5 A 4AC-4.1 D 4AC-4.2 A 4AC-4.3 B 4AC-4.4 C 4AC-4.5 A 4AD-1.1 B 4AD-1.2 A 4AD-1.3 B 4AD-1.4 A 4AD-1.5 D 4AD-1.6 C 4AD-1.7 A 4AD-1.8 D 4AD-1.9 D 4AD-1.10 A 4AD-1.11 C 4AD-2.1 C 4AD-2.2 D 4AD-2.3 B 4AD-2.4 D 4AD-2.5 B 4AD-2.6 A 4AD-2.7 B 4AD-3.1 A 4AD-3.2 D 4AD-3.3 B 4AD-3.4 D 4AD-3.5 C 4AD-4.1 D 4AD-4.2 B 4AD-4.3 B 4AD-4.4 D 4AD-4.5 B 4AD-5.1 C 4AD-5.2 A 4AD-5.3 C 4AD-5.4 C 4AD-5.5 A 4AD-6.1 D 4AD-6.2 B 4AD-6.3 A 4AD-6.4 C 4AD-7.1 C 4AD-7.2 C 4AD-7.3 A 4AE-1.1 A 4AE-1.2 D 4AE-1.3 A 4AE-1.4 B 4AE-2.1 C 4AE-2.2 B 4AE-2.3 D 4AE-2.4 B 4AE-2.5 A 4AE-2.6 B 4AE-2.7 B 4AE-3.1 A 4AE-3.2 C 4AE-3.3 A 4AE-3.4 A 4AE-3.5 C 4AE-4.1 B 4AE-4.2 D 4AE-4.3 C 4AE-4.4 B 4AE-4.5 B 4AE-4.6 A 4AE-4.7 D 4AE-5.1 C 4AE-5.2 B 4AE-5.3 C 4AE-5.4 A 4AE-5.5 B 4AE-5.6 D 4AE-5.7 C 4AE-5.8 A 4AE-5.9 B 4AE-5.10 C 4AE-5.11 A 4AE-5.12 B 4AE-5.13 C 4AE-5.14 D 4AE-5.15 A 4AE-5.16 B 4AE-5.17 C 4AE-5.18 D 4AE-5.19 A 4AE-5.20 B 4AE-5.21 A 4AE-5.22 D 4AE-5.23 C 4AE-5.24 D 4AE-5.25 A 4AE-5.26 D 4AE-5.27 B 4AE-5.28 A 4AE-5.29 C 4AE-5.30 D 4AE-5.31 A 4AE-5.32 B 4AE-5.33 C 4AE-5.34 D 4AE-5.35 D 4AE-5.36 A 4AE-5.37 B 4AE-5.38 B 4AE-5.39 D 4AE-5.40 A 4AE-6.1 A 4AE-6.2 B 4AE-6.3 C 4AE-6.4 B 4AE-6.5 D 4AE-6.6 B 4AE-6.7 A 4AE-6.8 D 4AE-6.9 D 4AE-6.10 C 4AE-7.1 A 4AE-7.2 A 4AE-7.3 C 4AE-7.4 D 4AE-7.5 C 4AE-7.6 B 4AE-7.7 D 4AE-8.1 B 4AE-8.2 C 4AE-8.3 D 4AE-8.4 A 4AE-8.5 D 4AE-8.6 B 4AE-8.7 C 4AE-8.8 D 4AE-8.9 A 4AE-8.10 D 4AE-9.1 B 4AE-9.2 C 4AE-9.3 C 4AE-9.4 D 4AE-9.5 C 4AE-9.6 A 4AE-9.7 B 4AE-9.8 B 4AE-9.9 C 4AE-9.10 C 4AF-1.1 D 4AF-1.2 A 4AF-1.3 D 4AF-1.4 C 4AF-1.5 B 4AF-1.6 A 4AF-1.7 C 4AF-1.8 C 4AF-1.9 C 4AF-1.10 D 4AF-1.11 A 4AF-1.12 B 4AF-1.13 D 4AF-1.14 D 4AF-1.15 B 4AF-1.16 D 4AF-1.17 C 4AF-1.18 D 4AF-1.19 C 4AF-1.20 C 4AF-2.1 C 4AF-2.2 B 4AF-2.3 B 4AF-2.4 C 4AF-2.5 C 4AF-2.6 A 4AF-2.7 B 4AF-2.8 B 4AF-2.9 B 4AF-2.10 B 4AF-2.11 A 4AF-2.12 A 4AF-2.13 C 4AF-2.14 C 4AF-2.15 A 4AF-2.16 A 4AF-2.17 B 4AF-3.1 D 4AF-3.2 A 4AF-3.3 A 4AF-3.4 A 4AF-3.5 D 4AF-3.6 A 4AF-3.7 A 4AF-3.8 B 4AF-4.1 B 4AF-4.2 C 4AF-4.3 B 4AF-4.4 A 4AF-4.5 D 4AF-4.6 C 4AF-4.7 B 4AF-4.8 A 4AF-4.9 D 4AF-4.10 D 4AF-5.1 B 4AF-5.2 C 4AF-5.3 D 4AF-5.4 D 4AF-5.5 A 4AG-1.1 D 4AG-1.2 C 4AG-1.3 A 4AG-1.4 B 4AG-1.5 D 4AG-1.6 C 4AG-1.7 A 4AG-1.8 D 4AG-1.9 B 4AG-2.1 B 4AG-2.2 A 4AG-2.3 D 4AG-2.4 B 4AG-2.5 A 4AG-2.6 A 4AG-2.7 C 4AG-2.8 C 4AG-2.9 A 4AG-2.10 D 4AG-3.1 B 4AG-3.2 D 4AG-3.3 B 4AG-3.4 D 4AG-3.5 C 4AG-3.6 D 4AG-3.7 B 4AG-3.8 A 4AG-3.9 D 4AG-3.10 C 4AG-4.1 A 4AG-4.2 C 4AG-4.3 A 4AG-4.4 D 4AG-4.5 C 4AG-4.6 B 4AG-4.7 B 4AG-5.1 C 4AG-5.2 D 4AG-5.3 D 4AG-5.4 C 4AG-5.5 D 4AG-5.6 D 4AG-5.7 A 4AG-5.8 B 4AG-5.9 B 4AG-5.10 C 4AG-6.1 D 4AG-6.2 B 4AG-6.3 C 4AG-6.4 B 4AG-6.5 D 4AG-6.6 D 4AG-7.1 A 4AG-7.2 B 4AG-7.3 C 4AG-7.4 A 4AG-7.5 B 4AG-7.6 B 4AG-7.7 C 4AG-7.8 B 4AG-7.9 C 4AG-7.10 D 4AG-8.1 B 4AG-8.2 A 4AG-8.3 C 4AG-8.4 B 4AG-8.5 A 4AG-8.6 D 4AG-8.7 C 4AG-8.8 B 4AG-8.9 A 4AG-9.1 B 4AG-9.2 C 4AG-9.3 C 4AG-9.4 A 4AG-9.5 C 4AG-9.6 D 4AG-9.7 B 4AG-10.1 C 4AG-10.2 B 4AG-10.3 D 4AG-10.4 D 4AG-10.5 D 4AG-11.1 B 4AG-11.2 A 4AG-11.3 D 4AG-11.4 A 4AG-12.1 C 4AG-12.2 B 4AG-12.3 C 4AG-12.4 D 4AG-12.5 A 4AG-12.6 A 4AG-12.7 C 4AG-12.8 D 4AG-13.1 C 4AG-13.2 D 4AG-13.3 A 4AG-13.4 C 4AG-13.5 A 4AH-1.1 A 4AH-1.2 B 4AH-1.3 C 4AH-1.4 D 4AH-1.5 A 4AH-1.6 B 4AH-1.7 B 4AH-1.8 D 4AH-1.9 C 4AH-1.10 D 4AH-2.1 C 4AH-2.2 D 4AH-2.3 A 4AH-3.1 B 4AH-3.2 C 4AH-3.3 D 4AH-3.4 A 4AH-4.1 B 4AH-4.2 D 4AH-4.3 D 4AH-4.4 A 4AH-4.5 B 4AH-5.1 C 4AH-5.2 D 4AH-5.3 A 4AH-5.4 B 4AH-5.5 C 4AH-6.1 D 4AH-6.2 A 4AH-6.3 B 4AH-6.4 C 4AH-6.5 D 4AH-6.6 A 4AH-6.7 B 4AH-7.1 B 4AH-7.2 C 4AH-7.3 D 4AH-7.4 A 4AH-7.5 B 4AH-7.6 C 4AH-7.7 D 4AH-7.8 A 4AH-7.9 B 4AH-7.10 C 4AH-7.11 D 4AH-7.12 A 4AH-8.1 C 4AH-8.2 C 4AH-8.3 D 4AH-8.4 A 4AH-8.5 B 4AH-8.6 C 4AH-8.7 D 4AH-8.8 A 4AH-9.1 C 4AH-9.2 C 4AH-9.3 C 4AH-9.4 B 4AH-9.5 D 4AH-10.1 D 4AH-10.2 A 4AH-10.3 B 4AH-10.4 C 4AI-1.1 A 4AI-1.2 B 4AI-1.3 B 4AI-1.4 A 4AI-2.1 C 4AI-2.2 D 4AI-2.3 A 4AI-2.4 B 4AI-3.1 C 4AI-3.2 D 4AI-3.3 A 4AI-3.4 B 4AI-4.1 C 4AI-4.2 D 4AI-4.3 A 4AI-4.4 B 4AI-5.1 C 4AI-5.2 B 4AI-5.3 A 4AI-6.1 B 4AI-6.2 C 4AI-6.3 D 4AI-6.4 A 4AI-6.5 B 4AI-7.1 C 4AI-7.2 D 4AI-7.3 A 4AI-8.1 D 4AI-8.2 A 4AI-8.3 B 4AI-8.4 C 4AI-8.5 B 4AI-9.1 B 4AI-9.2 B 4AI-9.3 C 4AI-9.4 A 4AI-10.1 A 4AI-10.2 B 4AI-10.3 C 4AI-10.4 D 4AI-11.1 A 4AI-11.2 B 4AI-11.3 C 4AI-11.4 D 4AI-12.1 A 4AI-12.2 B 4AI-12.3 C 4AI-12.4 D